JMACK007 wrote:The point is, getting back to the original discussion, calling off $100 just because you misclicked and would never have been in a hand to begin with, is throwing bad money after bad money....
Is illogical - because you might not win the hand as often as lose, but you will win more $$$'s over a greater data sample than you will lose.
JMACK007 wrote:Just because the odds are 50/50, does not GAURANTEE that you will get an exactly even outcome....
Over an infinite data sample you will, which dictates whether the play or return is +EV, -EV or neutral EV. You cannot take a small sample in isolation to justify anything in regards to statistics, all permutations and an infinite data sample must be applied.
JMACK007 wrote:You are 1/3-2/3 against, EVERY time you try. So you cannot say after 1000 tries you will win 333 times!! That just does not happen, and therefore, your formula for generating that data is flawed.....
Over an infinite data sample (or large enough sample that variance is negligible) you will see that you win exactly 33% of the time to make this profitable. It might not happen every time but the formula for generating the data is not flawed and is acceptable.
JMACK007 wrote:you are a 66% dog.
you will win 1 out of every 3 times..
Basically, it comes down to the fact that you know you are behind, and are gambling. You might as well put your $100 on a line or a 3rd on Roulette... It is the same thing.....
Flawed, the two lines are one in the same when talking probabilities. The only problem is you view this as we only we run the trial three times (and therefore VARIANCE has a huge impact on the end result.
Gambling on roulette or craps is slightly different as there a multitude of variables to take into consideration, no matter if the calculations, permutations and variables are all considered over an infinite data sample the same play will always result in the house winning, the edge is always to the house in these table games. ANy casino game is always -EV.
What are the odds of hitting something 1/3 of the time when you only have 1/3 a chance of hitting it each time....
Now this is where you are starting to use variance to support your argument. The above statement is illogical in scientific terms based on what we are discussing right now. If there is a 1 in 3 chance of hitting it, then over an infinite data sample it will be hit 1/3 times.


